Dear About Tajweed,
My question is concerning the waqf rules. For Waqf al-kaafiy It says, " It is the stop on a Qur'anic word that is complete in meaning, and is attached to what follows it in meaning, but not in grammar. It can be at the end of a verse, or in a middle of a verse. It is called or sufficient, due to its lack of attachment grammatically to what follows, even though it is attached in meaning."
My question is, what does this sentence mean, "... is attached to what follows it in meaning, but not in grammar." The confusion is coming from how it is not attached grammatically. Can you give an example?
Yes, there are times where a phrase is complete, but attached to which preceded it in meaning. There are examples given below there on the same page which has the definition:
Far be an English phrase from the words of Allah in the Glorious Qur'an, but to help you understand, insha' Allah we will use an English example. If one says: "Ahmed went to the store to buy an apple. After he bought the apple, he ate it. " The first sentence and second sentence are two complete grammatical sentences, but linked in meaning. Usually sentences in one English paragraph are linked in meaning but are grammatically complete by themselves. This same principle exists in Arabic in phrases or sentences. Each holds its own as a completely independent phrase, but the meaning is continued.
If one said however "Ahmed went to the store to buy and apple and orange" but stopped on the word apple and then started on the words "and orange" , we can see the two words after "and orange" are linked in grammar and meaning because without the verb "to buy" and "apple" the words "and orange" do not carry a full meaning.
Insha' Allah this helps.
You are welcome.